Dear Phil,
Thank you for your always thoughtful, detailed and beautifully written Post #218, as well as your reply to Tim.
But I still am not seeing in either post a hypothesis as to why accommodation pricing is corrupting. You state this merely as an assertion, unsupported by empirical evidence and unsupported by any underlying analysis.
It is intuitively obvious to me that if everything the reviewer can buy may be purchased at the same, or at substantially the same, accommodation discount, then the playing field is level and the reviewer's genuine and honest subjective preferences emerge and become the authentic, genuine and wholly-uncorrupted basis of his/her purchase decision.
I've been trying to come up with an analogy. Someone is looking to buy a new large SUV. She has spent weeks reading reviews of cars and test driving cars. She's pretty sure she knows which one she wants. She knows how much she has to spend and which SUVs she prefers, and why.
She wakes up to find that every single model of large SUV by every single manufacturer suddenly is now offered at 40% off of sticker price.
Has her preference ordering changed -- been corrupted?
If she buys an SUV which she previously could not afford because it was out of reach financially that does not mean her preference ordering has changed. It just means that she can now purchase the SUV she preferred all along to the cheaper SUV she was planning to purchase.
A change solely in price across all options does not change her authentic, genuine preference ordering. There is no corruption of her natural and genuine preference ordering.
It would be ridiculous to present a hypothesis on this topic because the assertion isn't testable. I plainly wrote an assertion that the corrupting nature of accommodation pricing to reviewers
is intrinsic. I then outlined in clear principles why I think so. No data is presented because none is available. And btw, Ron, your stated view that accommodation pricing of equal discounts, to reviewers, from maker to maker, not being an ethical problem is also just an assertion. You are stating a personal principle that you believe keeps you square. OK, if you say so. But that's all you're coming back with -- saying so. Look, most of the discussions on HF5 so far are data-free. They are just discussions -- clashes and concurrences experientially posited. What could be tested are perceptions by the buying, street price public. Assemble a statistically-significant sample of hifi gear buyers. Fully inform them that reviewers can buy equipment they are reviewing or have reviewed, at steep discounts unavailable to the test group. Ask them if, knowing this, they trust reviewers more, less or no-change. Do you have confidence in that outcome?
It is intuitively obvious to me that large discounts not available to the buying audience a reviewer is evaluating gear for, can influence a given reviewer's assessments. I am not saying it will, nor that the assertion applies in all cases to all reviewers. An influence can be
corrupting, without succeeding to corrupt everyone in all cases. But corrupting influences can cast a pall of scepticism over everyone.
Your example of an SUV buyer is not analogous to what we're discussing. A consumer who suddenly sees a changed market is not corrupted by the appearance of sudden large discounts because
that buyer is a consumer who is free to make a choice for any reason whatsoever. In your example, the buyer is choosing for themselves, not making recommendations to other buyers on assumption of being an unbiased authority on the subject.
All we care about in terms of this topic is what factors can, might or will impair a formal reviewer's objectivity.
Phil