Dirac DSP strikes again

This link to a new earphone is the third instance I'm aware of a Dirac DSP being applied (via an Apple 'app') to a commercial headphone/earphone product. I've tested the Apple earbuds and Earpods and the t-Jays Four IEM, and this XTZ is a new IEM utilizing the Dirac DSP. I followed the articles relating to sound correction and impulse response in the Journal of the AES many years ago, and apparently now that digital music players like the Apple i-devices have the computing power to apply a true DSP code to digital music tracks, this is what we get - i.e. fantastic sound from inexpensive transducers. I'm still waiting for a Dirac-like DSP made for a high quality full size headphone.

http://www.xtzsound.eu/en/products/earphone/earphone-12#.UMiAL7S6_zI

I wonder about the relationship between the headphone DSP and what's used for loudspeakers. Dirac does both, so perhaps the techniques are the same or similar? But Dirac makes a strong point that it "isn't just EQ". They talk about impulse response, but from what I remember an impulse response can be derived from a steady-state freq. response with a Fourier transform. So would that make them somehow equivalent, and the DSP just a very fancy and mega-band parametric equalizer? I can testify as to the results with earbuds and Earpods - the corrections are phenomenal, and do seem to produce clean detail I can't imagine getting with any equalizer.

As far as purely frequency response goes, measuring an average ear isn't much of a problem, since having owned 100 or so headphones including a couple of Stax models, Sennheiser 800 and so on, the convergence to so-called neutrality seems to be working very well for the better headphones. There is a huge difference in the fashion/low-cost selections as compared to the better items. Then too, Dirac has gotten around most of the pinnae issues so far since their DSPs for "headphones" have been (3 cases) for ear-canal pods and IEMs. My curiosity is more about impulse response, and why pinnae would make much difference to that. It seems to me that impulse correction could be done more accurately, then if there's a tie-in to frequency response via Fouriers et al (which Dirac isn't going to detail for reasons of product secrecy), it might all make more sense.